Human Rights is diversity - sharia is the opposite
The evil of Sharia islam is what makes it incompatible with Negative Human Rights (i.e. why islamic OIC violates Human Rights by replacing them with Sharia, hence excluding women and non-muslims from equality). The evil of islam and its origin may be easier to grasp with historical examples, e.g. the Origin of Vikings.
It's racism and sexism even if proposed by a "god"! Klevius altruistic virtual volunteering for the world community in defense of Universal Human Rights . Yes, I know, it's unfair. Klevius vs islam, i.e. Universal Human Rights vs Sharia (OIC) racism/sexism! Of course Klevius will win. The question is just how long we should allow the dying beast to make people suffer. (Negative) Human Rights is not a ”Western” invention! It’s where you end up when you abandon racism and sexism, idiot! After you have abandoned islam! Your confused islamophilia and ignorance about Human Rights make YOU an accomplice to islam's crimes! Whereas Human Rights work as egalitarian and universal traffic rules (no matter who you are or what you drive you have the same rights as everyone else) islam/Sharia differs between muslim men and the rest (women and "infidels")!
Have you noticed that when the history of slavery is (PC) debated islam is always excluded/excused? Atlantic slave trade and Roman slaves are eagerly mentioned while the world's by far worst, longest and most extensive one is blinked, as is the fact that islam not only sanctions slavery but is itself built on slavery and sex slavery (rapetivism)! The core idea of islam is the most thoroughly elaborated parasitism ever, i.e. what in 1400 yrs has made it the by far worst crime ever. But thanks to islamic teachings muslims are kept extremely ignorant about the evil origin of islam (institutionalized parasitism based on slave finance, rapetivism and pillage). Ohlig: The first two "islamic" centuries lie in the shadows of history. Klevius: There was no islam or islamic Mohammad (that's why the Saudis have levelled Mohammad's "grave" etc), only the evil murdering, pillaging and raping Aramaic-Arabic Jewish("Christian") led illiterate Arab thugs chasing for booty and sex. The "success" of this formula became later institutionalized and codified as a one way (Koran/Sharia) moral excuse (Allah) for further racist/sexist genocides. The bedrock and currency of this system was racist slavery. However, with Enlightenment the new idea of individual (negative) Human Rights emerged (incl. abolishing of slavery) and were, much later (1948), written down in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights according to which everyone is equal no matter of sex, beliefs etc. Just like in traffic! But unlike traffic rules no one really seems to care about guarding our most precious asset as human beings. Instead racist sexist islamofascism (OIC and the Cairo Sharia declaration) is protected by Human Rights while they strive to undermine and eventually destroy these Human Rights! And most people don't seem to get it. Always remember, there is no islam without Human Rights violating racist/sexist Sharia. So a "vote" for Sharia-islam is AGAINST democracy and the freedom part of Human Rights!
Sayeeda Warsi (UK's non-elected OIC/Sharia politician) in essence doesn't differ from those muslim Saudi women who approve of sex slavery etc, other than that she is either ignorant or a traitor (against democracy and Human Rights) of the worst kind.
Thursday, April 18, 2013
Who is a muslim?
Klevius answer: A muslim is someone who choses Sharia and therefore violates the most basic Human Rights!
Imtiaz Alam, secretary general of the South Asia Free Media Association: One may ask our Islamists whether religious scholars agree on the definition of a Muslim? If so, then why are there violent divisions among the followers of various schools of Sharia?
Is a Muslim defined by the author of the 8th Amendment or the authors of the original 1973 constitution? Don’t we remember the Justice Munir Commission’s report that failed to find an answer to the question of who is a Muslim? Is there a standard constitutional or academic definition of the “ideology of Pakistan”? If Pakistan was created for Islam and the glory of kalima Tayyaba, then why did Jamiat Ulema-i-Hind and Jamaat-i-Islami oppose the creation of Pakistan? Why then are there more Muslims in India, who somehow subscribe to secularism and still remain Muslim? And finally, why didn’t Muslim Bengal keep its allegiance to Pakistan? It seems that while we have new questions every day, no answers will ever be forthcoming.
Klevius answer: Trying to follow a recipe (islam/Sharia) full of logical holes makes answers vary. Unlike Sharia the basic (negative) Human Rights cannot be problematized. Simply because of a lack of any content to criticize. Whereas Sharia in ALL forms ALWAYS imposes restrictions (especially for muslim women and other lesser "infidel" beings) negative Human Rights defend you from impositions.
Monotheisms emerged for the sole purpose of keeping females at bay as reproducers and slaves.
God made Adam in his image but to entertain and reproduce Adam he created a lesser being called Eve from the least valuable part of Adam's skeleton, i.e. a rib bone which happens to be the only bone that has multiple copies and which doesn't usually cause too much of trouble even if broken.
Today most civilized people have abandoned rapetivism for Human Rights. However, rapetivism still occurs frequently among certain people and religions.